What does Jesus mean regarding “Raca,” and “you fool?” - is he contrasting them?How literally do you take and universally apply what Jesus said?What does inherit the earth mean in Matthew 5:5What does it mean when Jesus say “Love your enemies” (Matthew 5:43-45)?What does Matthew mean by “if your eye causes you to sin, tear it out”, etc.?What does “therefore be as shrewd as snakes and as innocent as doves” mean?What does “give that which is holy to dogs” mean?What does “bowels of mercies” mean?Where is the italicization in the King James translation of the Bible from and what does it mean?What does the Bible teach about “fire” in the phrase “Hell fire”?What were the editions to the KJV since 1611 and who did them and when?

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What does Jesus mean regarding "Raca," and "you fool?" - is he contrasting them?

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What does Jesus mean regarding “Raca,” and “you fool?” - is he contrasting them?


How literally do you take and universally apply what Jesus said?What does inherit the earth mean in Matthew 5:5What does it mean when Jesus say “Love your enemies” (Matthew 5:43-45)?What does Matthew mean by “if your eye causes you to sin, tear it out”, etc.?What does “therefore be as shrewd as snakes and as innocent as doves” mean?What does “give that which is holy to dogs” mean?What does “bowels of mercies” mean?Where is the italicization in the King James translation of the Bible from and what does it mean?What does the Bible teach about “fire” in the phrase “Hell fire”?What were the editions to the KJV since 1611 and who did them and when?













4















Matthew 5:22, KJV says




But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.




The final two clauses are separated by ": but" which indicates that they are in contrast with each other. Hell seems worse than "the council" - does this mean that saying "you fool" is worse than calling someone a forbidden term of contempt ("Raca?")










share|improve this question









New contributor




Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
























    4















    Matthew 5:22, KJV says




    But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.




    The final two clauses are separated by ": but" which indicates that they are in contrast with each other. Hell seems worse than "the council" - does this mean that saying "you fool" is worse than calling someone a forbidden term of contempt ("Raca?")










    share|improve this question









    New contributor




    Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.






















      4












      4








      4








      Matthew 5:22, KJV says




      But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.




      The final two clauses are separated by ": but" which indicates that they are in contrast with each other. Hell seems worse than "the council" - does this mean that saying "you fool" is worse than calling someone a forbidden term of contempt ("Raca?")










      share|improve this question









      New contributor




      Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.












      Matthew 5:22, KJV says




      But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.




      The final two clauses are separated by ": but" which indicates that they are in contrast with each other. Hell seems worse than "the council" - does this mean that saying "you fool" is worse than calling someone a forbidden term of contempt ("Raca?")







      gospel-of-matthew words-of-jesus kjv






      share|improve this question









      New contributor




      Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|improve this question









      New contributor




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      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited 6 hours ago









      Ken Graham

      15.9k32161




      15.9k32161






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      asked 9 hours ago









      Aaron HallAaron Hall

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          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

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          2














          I looked at other translations than the KJV, and I found where the clauses are separated by "and" instead of "but." This indicates that Jesus is somewhat repeating himself for emphasis, and perhaps even saying that they are nearly as bad as each other.



          The NIV says:




          But I tell you that anyone who is angry with a brother or sister will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to a brother or sister, ‘Raca,’ is answerable to the court. And anyone who says, ‘You fool!’ will be in danger of the fire of hell.




          Young's Literal Translation says:




          but I -- I say to you, that every one who is angry at his brother without cause, shall be in danger of the judgment, and whoever may say to his brother, Empty fellow! shall be in danger of the sanhedrim, and whoever may say, Rebel! shall be in danger of the gehenna of the fire.




          In conclusion, Jesus is saying being angry at people without good reason, calling people forbidden epithets, and simply saying "you fool" are all things that should not be done.






          share|improve this answer








          New contributor




          Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
          Check out our Code of Conduct.



























            0














            Jesus seems to be using "the judgement," "council" and "hell" in the spiritual sense, or at least hinting at the fact that "hellfire" is the result of a bad verdict at "the Judgement," and the divine "council." As is also the case a few verses later, where He clearly isn't speaking on tips for avoiding jailtime, but of the kingdom of heaven: "Be at agreement with thy adversary betimes, whilst thou art in the way with him: lest perhaps the adversary deliver thee to the judge, and the judge deliver thee to the officer, and thou be cast into prison. Amen I say to thee, thou shalt not go out from thence till thou repay the last farthing" (Mt. 5:25-26).






            share|improve this answer






























              0














              What does Jesus mean regarding “Raca,” and “you fool?” - is he contrasting them?



              According to the Aramaic language reka means empty one.




              Matthew 5:22



              Matthew 5:22 is the twenty-second verse of the fifth chapter of the Gospel of Matthew in the New Testament and is part of the Sermon on the Mount. It is the first of what have traditionally been known as the 6 Antitheses. In this one, Jesus compares the current interpretation of "You shall not murder" from the Ten Commandments with his interpretation.



              The word Raca is original to the Greek manuscript; however, it is not a Greek word. The most common view is that it is a reference to the Aramaic word reka, which literally means "empty one", but probably meant "empty headed," or "foolish." Scholars seem divided on how grievous an insult it was. Hill feels it was very, France thinks it was a minor slur. The word translated as fool is the Greek moros, which has a similar meaning to the Aramaic reka. However moros also was used to mean godless, and thus could be much more severe a term than reka. It is very similar to the Greek word for apostate, and Albright and Mann feel that this word was originally intended, but the current version is a typo. Read Ref.; The reading of godless can explain why the punishment is more severe.[13] Jesus uses the term himself in Bible ref Matthew 23:17; (sticking the tribute were?)Nomenclature; when he is deriding the Pharisees.



              This verse has also recently become part of the debate over the New Testament view of homosexuality. Some scholars have argued that raca can mean effeminate, and was a term of abuse for homosexuals. Similarly moros can also refer to a homosexual aggressor; as Bible ref Gen 19.4-6. From Semitic cognates Warren Johansson argued that the word was an Aramaic pejorative, similar to the English words faggot or fairy. By these interpretations Jesus could be specifically condemning homophobia. Most scholars reject this view, considering it more likely that the terms were meant as general insults, rather than specific attacks on homosexuals. See also the Bible and homosexuality.







              share|improve this answer






















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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes









                2














                I looked at other translations than the KJV, and I found where the clauses are separated by "and" instead of "but." This indicates that Jesus is somewhat repeating himself for emphasis, and perhaps even saying that they are nearly as bad as each other.



                The NIV says:




                But I tell you that anyone who is angry with a brother or sister will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to a brother or sister, ‘Raca,’ is answerable to the court. And anyone who says, ‘You fool!’ will be in danger of the fire of hell.




                Young's Literal Translation says:




                but I -- I say to you, that every one who is angry at his brother without cause, shall be in danger of the judgment, and whoever may say to his brother, Empty fellow! shall be in danger of the sanhedrim, and whoever may say, Rebel! shall be in danger of the gehenna of the fire.




                In conclusion, Jesus is saying being angry at people without good reason, calling people forbidden epithets, and simply saying "you fool" are all things that should not be done.






                share|improve this answer








                New contributor




                Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                Check out our Code of Conduct.
























                  2














                  I looked at other translations than the KJV, and I found where the clauses are separated by "and" instead of "but." This indicates that Jesus is somewhat repeating himself for emphasis, and perhaps even saying that they are nearly as bad as each other.



                  The NIV says:




                  But I tell you that anyone who is angry with a brother or sister will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to a brother or sister, ‘Raca,’ is answerable to the court. And anyone who says, ‘You fool!’ will be in danger of the fire of hell.




                  Young's Literal Translation says:




                  but I -- I say to you, that every one who is angry at his brother without cause, shall be in danger of the judgment, and whoever may say to his brother, Empty fellow! shall be in danger of the sanhedrim, and whoever may say, Rebel! shall be in danger of the gehenna of the fire.




                  In conclusion, Jesus is saying being angry at people without good reason, calling people forbidden epithets, and simply saying "you fool" are all things that should not be done.






                  share|improve this answer








                  New contributor




                  Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                  Check out our Code of Conduct.






















                    2












                    2








                    2







                    I looked at other translations than the KJV, and I found where the clauses are separated by "and" instead of "but." This indicates that Jesus is somewhat repeating himself for emphasis, and perhaps even saying that they are nearly as bad as each other.



                    The NIV says:




                    But I tell you that anyone who is angry with a brother or sister will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to a brother or sister, ‘Raca,’ is answerable to the court. And anyone who says, ‘You fool!’ will be in danger of the fire of hell.




                    Young's Literal Translation says:




                    but I -- I say to you, that every one who is angry at his brother without cause, shall be in danger of the judgment, and whoever may say to his brother, Empty fellow! shall be in danger of the sanhedrim, and whoever may say, Rebel! shall be in danger of the gehenna of the fire.




                    In conclusion, Jesus is saying being angry at people without good reason, calling people forbidden epithets, and simply saying "you fool" are all things that should not be done.






                    share|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.










                    I looked at other translations than the KJV, and I found where the clauses are separated by "and" instead of "but." This indicates that Jesus is somewhat repeating himself for emphasis, and perhaps even saying that they are nearly as bad as each other.



                    The NIV says:




                    But I tell you that anyone who is angry with a brother or sister will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to a brother or sister, ‘Raca,’ is answerable to the court. And anyone who says, ‘You fool!’ will be in danger of the fire of hell.




                    Young's Literal Translation says:




                    but I -- I say to you, that every one who is angry at his brother without cause, shall be in danger of the judgment, and whoever may say to his brother, Empty fellow! shall be in danger of the sanhedrim, and whoever may say, Rebel! shall be in danger of the gehenna of the fire.




                    In conclusion, Jesus is saying being angry at people without good reason, calling people forbidden epithets, and simply saying "you fool" are all things that should not be done.







                    share|improve this answer








                    New contributor




                    Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.









                    share|improve this answer



                    share|improve this answer






                    New contributor




                    Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.









                    answered 9 hours ago









                    Aaron HallAaron Hall

                    1437




                    1437




                    New contributor




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                    New contributor





                    Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.






                    Aaron Hall is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
                    Check out our Code of Conduct.





















                        0














                        Jesus seems to be using "the judgement," "council" and "hell" in the spiritual sense, or at least hinting at the fact that "hellfire" is the result of a bad verdict at "the Judgement," and the divine "council." As is also the case a few verses later, where He clearly isn't speaking on tips for avoiding jailtime, but of the kingdom of heaven: "Be at agreement with thy adversary betimes, whilst thou art in the way with him: lest perhaps the adversary deliver thee to the judge, and the judge deliver thee to the officer, and thou be cast into prison. Amen I say to thee, thou shalt not go out from thence till thou repay the last farthing" (Mt. 5:25-26).






                        share|improve this answer



























                          0














                          Jesus seems to be using "the judgement," "council" and "hell" in the spiritual sense, or at least hinting at the fact that "hellfire" is the result of a bad verdict at "the Judgement," and the divine "council." As is also the case a few verses later, where He clearly isn't speaking on tips for avoiding jailtime, but of the kingdom of heaven: "Be at agreement with thy adversary betimes, whilst thou art in the way with him: lest perhaps the adversary deliver thee to the judge, and the judge deliver thee to the officer, and thou be cast into prison. Amen I say to thee, thou shalt not go out from thence till thou repay the last farthing" (Mt. 5:25-26).






                          share|improve this answer

























                            0












                            0








                            0







                            Jesus seems to be using "the judgement," "council" and "hell" in the spiritual sense, or at least hinting at the fact that "hellfire" is the result of a bad verdict at "the Judgement," and the divine "council." As is also the case a few verses later, where He clearly isn't speaking on tips for avoiding jailtime, but of the kingdom of heaven: "Be at agreement with thy adversary betimes, whilst thou art in the way with him: lest perhaps the adversary deliver thee to the judge, and the judge deliver thee to the officer, and thou be cast into prison. Amen I say to thee, thou shalt not go out from thence till thou repay the last farthing" (Mt. 5:25-26).






                            share|improve this answer













                            Jesus seems to be using "the judgement," "council" and "hell" in the spiritual sense, or at least hinting at the fact that "hellfire" is the result of a bad verdict at "the Judgement," and the divine "council." As is also the case a few verses later, where He clearly isn't speaking on tips for avoiding jailtime, but of the kingdom of heaven: "Be at agreement with thy adversary betimes, whilst thou art in the way with him: lest perhaps the adversary deliver thee to the judge, and the judge deliver thee to the officer, and thou be cast into prison. Amen I say to thee, thou shalt not go out from thence till thou repay the last farthing" (Mt. 5:25-26).







                            share|improve this answer












                            share|improve this answer



                            share|improve this answer










                            answered 9 hours ago









                            Sola GratiaSola Gratia

                            3,930921




                            3,930921





















                                0














                                What does Jesus mean regarding “Raca,” and “you fool?” - is he contrasting them?



                                According to the Aramaic language reka means empty one.




                                Matthew 5:22



                                Matthew 5:22 is the twenty-second verse of the fifth chapter of the Gospel of Matthew in the New Testament and is part of the Sermon on the Mount. It is the first of what have traditionally been known as the 6 Antitheses. In this one, Jesus compares the current interpretation of "You shall not murder" from the Ten Commandments with his interpretation.



                                The word Raca is original to the Greek manuscript; however, it is not a Greek word. The most common view is that it is a reference to the Aramaic word reka, which literally means "empty one", but probably meant "empty headed," or "foolish." Scholars seem divided on how grievous an insult it was. Hill feels it was very, France thinks it was a minor slur. The word translated as fool is the Greek moros, which has a similar meaning to the Aramaic reka. However moros also was used to mean godless, and thus could be much more severe a term than reka. It is very similar to the Greek word for apostate, and Albright and Mann feel that this word was originally intended, but the current version is a typo. Read Ref.; The reading of godless can explain why the punishment is more severe.[13] Jesus uses the term himself in Bible ref Matthew 23:17; (sticking the tribute were?)Nomenclature; when he is deriding the Pharisees.



                                This verse has also recently become part of the debate over the New Testament view of homosexuality. Some scholars have argued that raca can mean effeminate, and was a term of abuse for homosexuals. Similarly moros can also refer to a homosexual aggressor; as Bible ref Gen 19.4-6. From Semitic cognates Warren Johansson argued that the word was an Aramaic pejorative, similar to the English words faggot or fairy. By these interpretations Jesus could be specifically condemning homophobia. Most scholars reject this view, considering it more likely that the terms were meant as general insults, rather than specific attacks on homosexuals. See also the Bible and homosexuality.







                                share|improve this answer



























                                  0














                                  What does Jesus mean regarding “Raca,” and “you fool?” - is he contrasting them?



                                  According to the Aramaic language reka means empty one.




                                  Matthew 5:22



                                  Matthew 5:22 is the twenty-second verse of the fifth chapter of the Gospel of Matthew in the New Testament and is part of the Sermon on the Mount. It is the first of what have traditionally been known as the 6 Antitheses. In this one, Jesus compares the current interpretation of "You shall not murder" from the Ten Commandments with his interpretation.



                                  The word Raca is original to the Greek manuscript; however, it is not a Greek word. The most common view is that it is a reference to the Aramaic word reka, which literally means "empty one", but probably meant "empty headed," or "foolish." Scholars seem divided on how grievous an insult it was. Hill feels it was very, France thinks it was a minor slur. The word translated as fool is the Greek moros, which has a similar meaning to the Aramaic reka. However moros also was used to mean godless, and thus could be much more severe a term than reka. It is very similar to the Greek word for apostate, and Albright and Mann feel that this word was originally intended, but the current version is a typo. Read Ref.; The reading of godless can explain why the punishment is more severe.[13] Jesus uses the term himself in Bible ref Matthew 23:17; (sticking the tribute were?)Nomenclature; when he is deriding the Pharisees.



                                  This verse has also recently become part of the debate over the New Testament view of homosexuality. Some scholars have argued that raca can mean effeminate, and was a term of abuse for homosexuals. Similarly moros can also refer to a homosexual aggressor; as Bible ref Gen 19.4-6. From Semitic cognates Warren Johansson argued that the word was an Aramaic pejorative, similar to the English words faggot or fairy. By these interpretations Jesus could be specifically condemning homophobia. Most scholars reject this view, considering it more likely that the terms were meant as general insults, rather than specific attacks on homosexuals. See also the Bible and homosexuality.







                                  share|improve this answer

























                                    0












                                    0








                                    0







                                    What does Jesus mean regarding “Raca,” and “you fool?” - is he contrasting them?



                                    According to the Aramaic language reka means empty one.




                                    Matthew 5:22



                                    Matthew 5:22 is the twenty-second verse of the fifth chapter of the Gospel of Matthew in the New Testament and is part of the Sermon on the Mount. It is the first of what have traditionally been known as the 6 Antitheses. In this one, Jesus compares the current interpretation of "You shall not murder" from the Ten Commandments with his interpretation.



                                    The word Raca is original to the Greek manuscript; however, it is not a Greek word. The most common view is that it is a reference to the Aramaic word reka, which literally means "empty one", but probably meant "empty headed," or "foolish." Scholars seem divided on how grievous an insult it was. Hill feels it was very, France thinks it was a minor slur. The word translated as fool is the Greek moros, which has a similar meaning to the Aramaic reka. However moros also was used to mean godless, and thus could be much more severe a term than reka. It is very similar to the Greek word for apostate, and Albright and Mann feel that this word was originally intended, but the current version is a typo. Read Ref.; The reading of godless can explain why the punishment is more severe.[13] Jesus uses the term himself in Bible ref Matthew 23:17; (sticking the tribute were?)Nomenclature; when he is deriding the Pharisees.



                                    This verse has also recently become part of the debate over the New Testament view of homosexuality. Some scholars have argued that raca can mean effeminate, and was a term of abuse for homosexuals. Similarly moros can also refer to a homosexual aggressor; as Bible ref Gen 19.4-6. From Semitic cognates Warren Johansson argued that the word was an Aramaic pejorative, similar to the English words faggot or fairy. By these interpretations Jesus could be specifically condemning homophobia. Most scholars reject this view, considering it more likely that the terms were meant as general insults, rather than specific attacks on homosexuals. See also the Bible and homosexuality.







                                    share|improve this answer













                                    What does Jesus mean regarding “Raca,” and “you fool?” - is he contrasting them?



                                    According to the Aramaic language reka means empty one.




                                    Matthew 5:22



                                    Matthew 5:22 is the twenty-second verse of the fifth chapter of the Gospel of Matthew in the New Testament and is part of the Sermon on the Mount. It is the first of what have traditionally been known as the 6 Antitheses. In this one, Jesus compares the current interpretation of "You shall not murder" from the Ten Commandments with his interpretation.



                                    The word Raca is original to the Greek manuscript; however, it is not a Greek word. The most common view is that it is a reference to the Aramaic word reka, which literally means "empty one", but probably meant "empty headed," or "foolish." Scholars seem divided on how grievous an insult it was. Hill feels it was very, France thinks it was a minor slur. The word translated as fool is the Greek moros, which has a similar meaning to the Aramaic reka. However moros also was used to mean godless, and thus could be much more severe a term than reka. It is very similar to the Greek word for apostate, and Albright and Mann feel that this word was originally intended, but the current version is a typo. Read Ref.; The reading of godless can explain why the punishment is more severe.[13] Jesus uses the term himself in Bible ref Matthew 23:17; (sticking the tribute were?)Nomenclature; when he is deriding the Pharisees.



                                    This verse has also recently become part of the debate over the New Testament view of homosexuality. Some scholars have argued that raca can mean effeminate, and was a term of abuse for homosexuals. Similarly moros can also refer to a homosexual aggressor; as Bible ref Gen 19.4-6. From Semitic cognates Warren Johansson argued that the word was an Aramaic pejorative, similar to the English words faggot or fairy. By these interpretations Jesus could be specifically condemning homophobia. Most scholars reject this view, considering it more likely that the terms were meant as general insults, rather than specific attacks on homosexuals. See also the Bible and homosexuality.








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                                    answered 6 hours ago









                                    Ken GrahamKen Graham

                                    15.9k32161




                                    15.9k32161




















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